June 2026 UPSC Current Affairs — 100 MCQs

100 medium-to-hard MCQs from PIB, The Hindu and Indian Express, with detailed explanations. The first 10 are free — unlock the full bank for ₹49.

Sample questions

Q1

The 'No First Use' pledge is part of which Indian policy?

a.Nuclear doctrine
b.National Cyber Security Policy
c.Indian Space Policy
d.Maritime doctrine

Explanation

India explicitly includes the No First Use pledge in its nuclear doctrine, outlining when nuclear weapons may be used—only in retaliation. The National Cyber Security Policy addresses cyber threats, not nuclear-use posture. The Indian Space Policy governs space activities and commercialization, not nuclear deterrence. The Maritime doctrine guides naval strategy and sea control, unrelated to nuclear-use commitments. **Source:** India's Nuclear Policy and National Security — The Hindu, 30 Jun 2026 · https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/what-indias-12-operationally-deployed-nuclear-warheads-really-mean/article71161400.ece

Q2

Which ministry implements the Semicon India Programme to develop semiconductor and display manufacturing in India?

a.Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
b.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
c.NITI Aayog
d.Department of Telecommunications

Explanation

The Semicon India Programme is implemented by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) through the India Semiconductor Mission. DPIIT focuses on industrial promotion but does not run this programme. NITI Aayog is a policy think tank and not the implementing ministry. The Department of Telecommunications handles telecom networks and spectrum, not semiconductor manufacturing schemes. **Source:** AI-Chip Investment as a Strategic Economic Initiative — The Hindu, 29 Jun 2026 · https://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/south-korea-announces-massive-576-billion-ai-chip-investment/article71160521.ece

Q3

Which one of the following is a stated element of India’s nuclear doctrine (2003)?

a.Pre-emptive nuclear first-use to blunt a large conventional offensive
b.Delegation of nuclear release authority to the Strategic Forces Command during war
c.Adoption of a launch-on-warning posture based on early-warning sensors
d.A No First Use pledge with massive retaliation to a nuclear attack

Explanation

India’s 2003 doctrine declares No First Use and specifies that nuclear retaliation to a first strike will be massive and designed to inflict unacceptable damage, matching option (d). Option (a) is incorrect because NFU rules out pre-emptive first-use, even against a conventional thrust. Option (b) is incorrect as release authority remains with the civilian Nuclear Command Authority, not delegated to the Strategic Forces Command. Option (c) is incorrect since India has not officially adopted a launch-on-warning posture; the doctrine envisages retaliatory use after a nuclear attack. **Source:** India's Nuclear Policy and National Security — The Hindu, 30 Jun 2026 · https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/what-indias-12-operationally-deployed-nuclear-warheads-really-mean/article71161400.ece

Q4

Which one of the following is not a member of BRICS?

a.Indonesia
b.Brazil
c.Russia
d.South Africa

Explanation

Indonesia is not a BRICS member. Brazil is one of the original BRIC countries. Russia is also a founding BRIC member. South Africa joined in 2010, making BRIC into BRICS. **Source:** The Role of BRICS in International Collaboration — The Hindu, 24 Jun 2026 · https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/brics-can-play-a-key-role-in-tackling-terrorism-pm/article71138976.ece

Q5

Which one of the following correctly describes the BRICS Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA)?

a.A BRICS initiative to fund Belt and Road transport corridors primarily through grants
b.A pool of IMF Special Drawing Rights jointly held by BRICS under IMF Articles
c.A payments-messaging platform designed to replace SWIFT among BRICS central banks
d.A US$100 billion currency-swap safety net to address short-term balance-of-payments pressures among BRICS members

Explanation

The BRICS CRA is a US$100 billion framework providing liquidity support to members via currency swaps to manage short-term balance-of-payments pressures, with access modalities and IMF linkage for larger drawings. Option (a) is incorrect because it conflates CRA with infrastructure financing; CRA is not a grant-based transport corridor fund. Option (b) is incorrect as CRA is a BRICS intergovernmental arrangement outside the IMF and does not constitute a joint SDR pool. Option (c) is incorrect; CRA is not a messaging system—it is a reserve-liquidity backstop, distinct from payments infrastructure like SWIFT. **Source:** The Role of BRICS in International Collaboration — The Hindu, 24 Jun 2026 · https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/brics-can-play-a-key-role-in-tackling-terrorism-pm/article71138976.ece

Q6

In the semiconductor value chain, which one of the following best describes a 'pure-play foundry'?

a.An integrated device manufacturer that designs and fabricates chips for its own branded products.
b.An IP vendor that develops and licenses processor architectures to chip designers.
c.A wafer-fabrication business that manufactures integrated circuits for external fabless clients without marketing chips under its own brand.
d.An outsourced assembly and test provider that packages dies and performs final testing.

Explanation

A pure-play foundry fabricates wafers for external, fabless designers and does not sell chips under its own brand, hence option (c). Option (a) describes an integrated device manufacturer (IDM) that designs and fabricates primarily for its own products. Option (b) refers to intellectual-property licensors like ARM, which design cores but do not run wafer fabs. Option (d) is an OSAT firm focusing on packaging and testing, not front-end wafer fabrication. **Source:** AI-Chip Investment as a Strategic Economic Initiative — The Hindu, 29 Jun 2026 · https://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/south-korea-announces-massive-576-billion-ai-chip-investment/article71160521.ece

Q7

Consider the following statements regarding the Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017: I. They create State Wetland Authorities chaired by the Chief Minister. II. They prohibit setting up of new industries within notified wetlands. III. They exclude all man-made wetlands from their ambit. How many of the above statements are correct?

a.Only one
b.Only two
c.All the three
d.None

Explanation

Only Statement II is correct. Under the 2017 Rules, State Wetland Authorities are chaired by the State Minister in charge of Environment/Forest, not the Chief Minister, so Statement I is incorrect. The Rules list prohibited activities in notified wetlands, including setting up of new industries and expansion of existing ones, hence Statement II is correct. The Rules do not exclude all man-made wetlands; they specifically exclude certain human-made water bodies constructed for purposes like drinking water supply, irrigation, aquaculture, or salt pans, so Statement III’s blanket claim is incorrect. Therefore, only one statement is correct, making options (b), (c), and (d) wrong. **Source:** Wetland Conservation and Pollution Management — The Hindu, 23 Jun 2026 · https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/mumbai/polluted-creek-water-enteringdps-flamingo-lake-is-threat-to-navi-mumbais-wetlands-study/article71133346.ece

Q8

Under the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005 and the SEZ Rules, 2006, which one of the following is correct?

a.The Reserve Bank of India grants formal approval to establish a Special Economic Zone.
b.A Unit Approval Committee chaired by the Development Commissioner approves proposals to set up units in an SEZ and monitors compliance with positive Net Foreign Exchange.
c.SEZ units are exempt from the Companies Act, 2013 for corporate governance requirements.
d.Sales by SEZ units to the Domestic Tariff Area are treated as exports and attract zero customs duties.

Explanation

Under the SEZ Rules, 2006, the Unit Approval Committee (UAC) chaired by the Development Commissioner approves units within an SEZ and reviews their performance, including the positive Net Foreign Exchange (NFE) requirement. Option (a) is incorrect because formal approval to establish an SEZ is granted by the Board of Approval under the Department of Commerce, not the RBI. Option (c) is incorrect as SEZ units remain subject to general company law; the Companies Act, 2013 applies unless a specific exemption exists under another statute. Option (d) is incorrect because sales by SEZ units to the Domestic Tariff Area are treated as imports into the DTA and attract applicable customs duties; it is supplies from the DTA to SEZ that are deemed exports. **Source:** Special Economic Zones: Stakeholder Engagement and Policy Implications — The Hindu, 28 Jun 2026 · https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/commerce-ministry-convenes-stakeholders-meet-on-june-30-on-sez-issues/article71157913.ece

Q9

Consider the following statements regarding biodiversity hotspots as defined by Conservation International: I. A hotspot must have at least 1,500 endemic vascular plant species. II. It must have lost at least 70% of its original natural vegetation. III. The Western Ghats–Sri Lanka constitutes a single global hotspot. How many of the above are correct?

a.Only one
b.Only two
c.All the three
d.None

Explanation

All three statements are correct. I is correct: the hotspot criterion uses endemic vascular plant richness (≥1,500 species), not vertebrates. II is correct: a hotspot must have lost ≥70% of its original habitat. III is correct: Conservation International recognises “Western Ghats and Sri Lanka” as a single hotspot. Hence options saying only one, only two, or none are incorrect. **Source:** Biodiversity and Conservation in the Western Ghats — The Hindu, 24 Jun 2026 · https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/discovery-of-new-moth-genus-in-keralas-idukki-highlights-western-ghats-hidden-biodiversity/article71140509.ece

Q10

Statement I: A sustained rise in the IIP can strengthen the case for a tighter monetary policy stance by the RBI. Statement II: Higher industrial output can create a positive output gap, increasing demand-side inflation risks. Statement III: The Monetary Policy Committee under the RBI Act, 1934 targets headline CPI inflation. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

a.Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
b.Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
c.Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
d.Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Explanation

Statement I is plausible: sustained IIP strength can signal overheating, prompting tighter policy. Statement II is correct and explains I by linking stronger output to a positive output gap and inflation risk. Statement III is also correct—the MPC’s legal mandate (amended RBI Act, 1934) is to target headline CPI—but it provides context rather than the causal link from IIP to stance. Hence both II and III are correct, but only II explains I. **Source:** Industrial Production and Its Economic Significance — The Hindu, 29 Jun 2026 · https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/iip-growth-quickens-to-five-month-high-of-51-on-cross-sector-improvements/article71161419.ece

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Frequently Asked Questions

What does the June 2026 UPSC current-affairs bank cover?

100 UPSC-pattern MCQs on the most exam-relevant developments of June 2026, drawn from PIB, The Hindu and Indian Express, each testing an enduring concept the news illustrates rather than a throwaway data point.

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There are 100 questions. The first 10 are free; unlocking the full June 2026 bank is a one-time ₹49.

Which sources are the questions from?

PIB press releases, The Hindu and the Indian Express — distilled into exam-style MCQs with explanations.

First 10 free

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